Trip vs four flush board

[Peter-23]

Party Poker 1/2 Hold'em (8 handed) converter

Preflop: Hero is MP1 with 8[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img], A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img].
2 folds, Hero calls, MP2 calls, 1 fold, Button calls, SB completes, BB raises, Hero calls, MP2 calls, Button calls, SB calls.

Flop: (10 SB) 2[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], 8[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 7[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (5 players)
SB checks, BB bets, Hero calls, MP2 calls, Button calls, SB folds.

Turn: (7 BB) 8[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (4 players)
BB bets, Hero calls, MP2 folds, Button folds.

River: (9 BB) 3[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] (2 players)
BB bets, Hero calls.

Final Pot: 11 BB

BB shows A [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] A [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]


After this hand we had a chat about if I really had the odds to call on the river because of the fourflush board.

1. Did I play my hand correctly?

2. If we impose the restriction that I somehow knew that my trip would win aganst any hand exept the flush, would my reasoning below be correct then? (I realize this is not an absolute correct restriction but I was not going to fold my trip if I somehow knew he didnt have a [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] here.)

I argued that I had the advantage but Im not really sure. Im thinking since there is four [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]s on the board there are 9 unknown. That is 9/45 = 0.2 or 20% chans to get a [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] from the remaining deck. Since there are four cards, his HC and mine, and there is a 25% shot for any of us to get it. Since I didnt have it he would need 25% from the remaining cards to have the upper hand but only got 20%. So I would have the advatage at the river in this hand (I mean more than 50% chans to win). I also argued that even if I didnt have the advantage I had the pot odds to call.

I think I was the only one at the table who thought my river call was correct. If I did anything incorrect here it was not raising the flop and turn.

Im not a wiz at this as you might imagine so comments is appriciated.

[TwoShedsJackson]

Raise the flop, you have TPTK and would like to get anyone with a lone diamond to fold, no-one with two diamonds (or indeed the A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] and another Ace) is folding anyway.

Raise the turn, you very likely have the best hand here. Not raising here is bad.

Are you good 1 in 10 times on the river? Yes, so you should call, but you played this hand way too passively for my liking.

Don't post the results if you want unbiased opinions.

[caggin]

Raise the flop! I'd raise the turn too. You want to get rid of the loner diamonds. I'd call the river here against just one opponent, especially one who raised pf and has been betting the whole way.

[Big Folder]

Like jackson said.

The hand probably would not have ended any differently but it would have been correct.

But there is a chance if this guy is passive he might fold on the turn(extremely doubtful though)

Still, a raise on the flop is correct. He should reraise, but if he doesnt he might just check the flush on the turn. You bet, he'll likely call and try to c/r you on the river. You check behind.

I believe this is the appropriate line, but I could be wrong. And even though the results probably would not have changed (in fact by playing it correctly you will lose more money this hand) you have to play like this to be making money whne those 4 flushes don't happen.

[Reef]

don't show the results in the post itself unless you make the text white.

[Peter-23]

Thanks,

I wont show the result in the future postings.

What do you think about my reasoning about being ahead. In a true heads up game I would claim that it is but can I apply the same reasoning when it is originaly a full game?

Is it wrong all toghether?