Gambler's Ruin

DoomSlice · #1 02-25-2005, 12:52 AM

How many buyins do you need to have to make going all in preflop every time a +EV play?

Maybe this should be posted in the stats forum...

ZBTHorton · #2 02-25-2005, 12:58 AM

????

How could this ever be a +EV play?

fimbulwinter · #3 02-25-2005, 01:56 AM

there is no number. going all-in preflop every time is -EV. summing an infinite number of -EV situations doesn't make a winning one.

fim

ZBTHorton · #4 02-25-2005, 02:15 AM

Just look at it this way.

If your going all in every hand, your favored against 50% of the hands over the long run.

Everyone else is getting to look at their cards before calling your ridiculous raise. Soooooo they win.

TrailofTears · #5 02-25-2005, 02:21 AM

4.5, but only if you aren't being raked. If you are, then it's 4.68.

fimbulwinter · #6 02-25-2005, 02:37 AM

shhhhhhhh, don't tell him the secret....

fim

ZBTHorton · #7 02-25-2005, 02:38 AM

Damn..another 2+2 novice learned the "secret"

TheWorstPlayer · #8 02-25-2005, 02:42 AM

Wait, the secret is "If you are going to post moronic probability questions with no answer, you should do it in the probability forum?" Cool.

gsyme · #9 02-25-2005, 03:12 AM

The answer is 0.

Proof: With zero buyins, there are no possible plays, so there are no +EV plays, therefore there are no +EV plays that are not all-in, therefore every all-in play is +EV.

ZBTHorton · #10 02-25-2005, 03:19 AM

mmmmm...that's spiffy.