Dumb? Rules Question

[Cleveland Guy]

I play in a rather relaxed home game, as we all want to play the right way, but we don't want to be the poker nazi's either.

It's a NLHE tournament.

A few guys do this, and I'm not sure how legit it would be outside of our little world. No one there seems to care, so maybe it's a legal move.

Player A Opens for a raise. Player B announces he wants to re-raise. He first moves his chips to the middle for the call - step 1. Then moves his chips to the middle for the raise - Step 2.

Is this allowed? or is it a string bet? He is announcing his intention before he acts, but he isn't making 1 swift move to the center with his chips.

Like I said - no one there cares, but as I go play other places live, I want to know which is the right move.

[djoyce003]

I think it's fine...as long as he announced his intention to raise he's allowed to push the call in, then decide on the raise amount. Of course he now has to raise...he can't change his mind and call.

[B1GF1SHY]

If you announced raise then you must raise. He can push in the amount matching the initial bet and then think what he'd like to raise before pushing it to the middle. It's not a string bet if you've announced your move verbally.

[Jimmything]

That's how we do it in our home games also. It's easier to keep everything square that way especially on all-ins when someone has a larger stack. I can't say about card room rules however.

[meep_42]

I'd love if people in my games did this. :P

-d

[swede123]

Yup, it's totally kosher. As long as a person verbally announces his intention he can put the chips in any way he wants. Of course, like the other guys mentioned, his verbal announcement is binding.

Cheers,

Swede

[Grisgra]

I see people do it that way on the WSOP all the time.

[AncientPC]

Sorta hijacking this thread, but when you say, "I raise $x" do you guys mean:

1) "I'm raising $x more."

or

2) "I'm raising to $x."

Does either work?