Question about Bad Beat rules

[Brian462]

I was just wondering what the ruling would be on a hand like this:

Player 1: T [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] T [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]
Player 2: K [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]
Player 3: A [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]

Flop: K [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] J [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] T [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]
T [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img]
K [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]

At, say, Party Poker if 4 of a kind tens or better loses it qualifies for the bad beat jackpot. If both 4 Tens and 4 Kings lost at the same time what would be ruling as far as how the jackpot is spread out?

And yes this is worthless knowledge, I'm just curious.

[Vandal]

"If there are two or more hands that qualify for the jackpot within one hand #, then the two highest hands will be considered for the jackpot, with the highest hand being the winning hand (the winner) and the second highest hand winning the bad beat (the loser of the hand)."

I got this from http://www.partypoker.com/news/badbeat.html

-Vandal

[Brian462]

Thanks.