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#11
10-24-2005, 12:22 PM
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Re: 99 fullring 1/2, this standard?
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] If he had a Jack or a King he wouldn't have just called down. [/ QUOTE ] I was thinking he very well might with .8 AF -- but maybe not if his AF is low due to his playing so many hands. [/ QUOTE ] I don't think he calls down with a king, but he might with a jack if his opinion of you is that you have a king. 
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#12
10-24-2005, 12:28 PM
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Re: 99 fullring 1/2, this standard?
[ QUOTE ]
If he had a Jack or a King he wouldn't have just called down. And he probably wouldn't have bet out anyway, he would have gone for a checkraise... [/ QUOTE ] Why do you think this? I think his play looks very much like a weak J (or even a weak king if he thinks you have AK/KJ and is a weak player - although a jack is much more likely imho).
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#16
10-24-2005, 02:03 PM
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Re: 99 fullring 1/2, this standard?
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MP1 is pretty passive postflop, so I fold the flop [/ QUOTE ] This is not necessarily true when he has a vp$ip of 66%.
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#17
10-24-2005, 02:17 PM
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Re: 99 fullring 1/2, this standard?
[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ] MP1 is pretty passive postflop, so I fold the flop [/ QUOTE ] This is not necessarily true when he has a vp$ip of 66%. [/ QUOTE ] Hi deception, I see what you mean. Is there a way to correlate post flop aggression with VPIP? For instance if you cut Villain’s VPIP in half to 33, would you consider his equivalent post flop aggression to be about double or 1.6? Or if you divided his VPIP by 3 to get 22, would you think of his post flop aggression as being equivalent to 2.4?
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#18
10-24-2005, 02:21 PM
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Re: 99 fullring 1/2, this standard?
his postflop aggression on all streets afterwards is over 1.5. Thought I posted that answer when Nfinity asked it but I must have forgotten to press the ok button [img]/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]
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#19
10-24-2005, 02:38 PM
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Re: 99 fullring 1/2, this standard?
[ QUOTE ]
Is there a way to correlate post flop aggression with VPIP? For instance if you cut Villain’s VPIP in half to 33, would you consider his equivalent post flop aggression to be about double or 1.6. Or if you divided his VPIP by 3 to get 22, would you think of his post flop aggression as being equivalent to 2.4? [/ QUOTE ] This is a good start - and there is validity to using that method to determine aggression - but it needs to be used in conjunction with the fold% on each street. If someone sees 66% of the flops and folds 70% of the time on the flop, the resulting range of hands is actually more reasonable and .8 would be a passive player on later streets. If they are folding 25% on the flop then they are peeling with a huge range and even .8 means they are very laggy since they probably are raising with draws, ace high, bluffs, etc. Without fold% or wtsd% it's pretty hard to quantify whether they are raising/folding post flop or calling down too much.
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#20
10-24-2005, 02:49 PM
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Re: 99 fullring 1/2, this standard?
Raising the flop takes stones but I guess it's logical to assume there's a good chance he's on a flush draw or OESD based on your read. You bet the turn to get a free showdown. Take it. What worse hands call this river? Betting this river is spewing.
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