a question regarding 'subsets' of hands

[bearly]

hi, i'm a reader of this particular forum, but not a poster. too complex. but i finally have a question that has piqued my interest enough to try. i'm interested in how you would calculate the 'odds-against' a series of events. in this case the poker hands would have the following characteristics: they would be pre-flop 'all-in' pushes, they would be against only one player, you would be greater than a 60/40 favorite to win. my questions are: since even 1 beat is against the 'odds', how do you calculate the odds against a string of these beats? also, at what point does the string become long enough to be a real 'abberation' (i don't think you guys use that word but it's the best i could do) thanks in advance. i really admire the math brain power on this forum.........b

[Tom1975]

The chance of losing one 60/40 all-in where you're the favorite is obiviously .4. The odds of losing two in a row are (.4)*(.4)=.16. The odds of losing n in a row are (.4)^n.

[bearly]

so finding the odds of losing 5 in a row is just .4times .4 repeated 5 times. what keys do i use on my hp12c, or any other good pocket calc.? thanks for getting me started........b