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#1
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Re: <---------------> . . . <______>
huh?
So you know you have the best hand on the turn, yet still bet $150 into a $600 pot in order to induce the OESD to call? I may not be understanding this, but by doing that you're giving your opponent correct odds to call. The problem with this question is that you're rarely ever in a decision in which you're 100% sure. You always work with percents ("there's a 60% chance he's on a OESD, 20% chance of overpair, etc.") Your question is too certain ("what if I know he has an OESD"?). If you're positive he has an OESD (as in you are 100% sure) then I would bet the pot the entire way down - unless you think he'd call for more. Then, if he does hit I would auto-fold it right to him. See my point? |
#2
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Re: <---------------> . . . <______>
[ QUOTE ]
huh? So you know you have the best hand on the turn, yet still bet $150 into a $600 pot in order to induce the OESD to call? I may not be understanding this, but by doing that you're giving your opponent correct odds to call. [/ QUOTE ] This is what I'm struggling with...do you overbet the turn to try to take whats in the pot and be on your merry way or do you want them to call and hope they don't hit the river? In a tourney I'm going to overbet the turn b/c accumulating chips in tourney is important. But what about in a cash game? Is the strategy to "almost give them proper odds to call"? So that if they do call, it is +EV for you? Or is it worth it to just overbet the turn and take whats already out there? I'm assuming, like a previous poster said, that you want to bet as much as you can that you think he/she will call with the OESD. That is the proper strategy. |
#3
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Re: <---------------> . . . <______>
[ QUOTE ]
So that if they do call, it is +EV for you? Or is it worth it to just overbet the turn and take whats already out there? [/ QUOTE ] It is definately better for you to bet an amount that your opponent will call incorrectly. If no such amount exists, then it is better to take down the pot immediately than bet an amount the opponent can call correctly. (in a ring game) |
#4
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Re: <---------------> . . . <______>
What confuses me is how someone with more than 500 posts needs to ask this question. Of course you want the guy to put money in that he shouldn't. That's how you win.
I understand your point about tournies but absent any specific info about how close either or both of you are to being pot committed, the same advice holds. You WANT opponents to bet/call without odds. |
#5
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Re: <---------------> . . . <______>
[ QUOTE ]
What confuses me is how someone with more than 500 posts needs to ask this question. [/ QUOTE ] What confuses me is how someone follows the creedo "More posts = better poker player". Nice logic. Get real man, I'm trying to better my game here. So, the MO should be "Get him to call, but only if it's an amount that isn't laying him proper odds." Sounds reasonable. What I'm getting at here is there are two ends of the spectrum. Imagine player A never lets the draws hit, and wins all these pots, albeit small ones. Player B likes to build the pot and hope to win a larger pot, he's happy when he wins the larger pot, but upset when they draw out. I'm just trying to find the medium ground here, which, as suggested by many, seems to be when you can get the chaser to call too much money to chase. Sure he'll hit once in a while but each call he makes is +EV for you. |
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