AA- reraise to isolate an all in?

[The Nutz85]

without reading any of the other post call! hoping to trap some of the other players in the hand, this guy essetially did the betting for you, and you want money in this pot. But their is a definite argument for raising to isoloate and get some dead money in the pot. But i would smooth call hoping the others would call. then just push the flop. Ive seen johnny chan do this once in a pokersuperstars tourn on tv it was cool

[KHALI]

Here was my thinking. I flat called the all in hoping to get called by one of the players, and by my reads on the other two I felt the table coach with $300approx stack felt he could really play so I was sure he would come along too.I may also add that his assumption of being a good player was giving himself too much credit. Example he limped UTG+1 with pocket JJ and let 5 in behind him. Then bet out big with an flop containing overcards to his hand.I also knew he would not release a hand such as top pair on board therefore the call and hope he hits.

Anyways it worked out perfect, first limper folds and bigger stack calls.
I know AA is not ideal in a multiway pot but I considered this to be heads up as the other guy was all in so now I was basically starting a new pot heads up here. Incorrect logic?

As the cards flop I watch villian and can see he likes it. I look down and see J, 6, 3 rainbow. With his second call I put villian on a middling suited hand such as 78suited, QJsuited. My read on the flop made me believe he was on the jack so I overbet by pushing my stack trying to bluff an AK missed or a pocket pair like 7's or 8's trying to force somebody out. Villian thinks for a few seconds(AKA the slowroll) and calls with Jh 3h for two pair. Turn was a 6 which counterfeited his two pair but the river was another 3.
This is not a bad beat whine and the end result is not important, here is my question:

Fundamentally if I knew his cards were J3 or 78suited or any two for that matter would I want to raise to make him fold preflop? Or is it correct to let him call $17 more and see a flop? Have I given him huge implied odds here that he can stack me if he hits and he will lose nothing more if he misses? That seems an arguement to raise. But how can it be correct to raise out a hand that I am something like an 82% favourite against preflop? Comments appreciated as this decision has made me wonder ever since it happened(not the result, he got lucky, but was it a mistake to let it happen?)
Thanks

[The Nutz85]

thats horrible but he was getting about 2-1 so as long as he didnt out you on a pair like HMM AA or so. then he was getting the right odds to see the flop but he just got lucky, tough break, he was getting odds to at least see the flop call 17 to win what 50? I think you did the right thing like TOP says had he known what you had calling was a obvious mistake you were 87% favorite over J3 preflop. so no i dont beleive you made the mistake he made the mistake by putting his money in the pot with a J3.