Party NL 50 - short, Laydown a flopped flush?

[BlueBear]

Party Poker No-Limit Hold'em, $1 BB (6 max, 5 handed) converter

Button ($173.75)
SB ($37.8)
BB ($50.7)
UTG ($110.2)
Hero ($52)

Preflop: Hero is MP with 7[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], 8[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img].
UTG calls $1, Hero calls $1, Button calls $1, SB completes, BB checks.

Flop: ($5) 2[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], 6[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], Q[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(5 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">SB bets $4</font>, BB folds, UTG folds, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises to $12</font>, Button folds, <font color="#CC3333">SB raises to $36.8 (All-In)</font>, Hero folds.

Final Pot: $53.80

No reads other than SB has been playing marginally loosely. Good/terrible fold?

[Sponger15SB]

I would never ever ever ever lay that down with 1 buy in.

[Tilt]

I think its a bad fold. Full ring, I think you could accept that there is a larger flush, but not at 6 Max. That is just so much less likely than that 2 pair, trips, or AdQx is making this move.

[amoeba]

at 50xBB stacks, I think this is easy call especially if you are just calling 24 more.

how would SB play a set in this situation?

[AncientPC]

No, I would not fold to a shortstack pushing all-in. He could just as easily be holding A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] or K[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], or have two pair or a set.

[Burno]

Terrible fold, IMO.

As other posters said, there is a wide range of hands including two pair, sets, and top pair/flush draw hands that you are way ahead of. There are very very few hands you are currently behind. I douby I'd lay this down with three times your stack.

[tap tap tappy]

In my opinion not that I am an experienced player by any means. There are 56 combinations of already made flush holes that he could be playing of which a little over half beat you as they would contain the A [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], K [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], J [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], T[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] and the 9 of [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]. If you took that 56 and multiplied it to about .6 or .65 which is about not exactly how many of those remaining possible diamond holes that could beat you there would be 36 hands that can beat you versus 20 that dont on top of the possibility that the player may have a two pair (33 holes), a draw at a flush(he probably would only play the A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] or K[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] including whatever other card so that would make easily 100 holes or more), just top pair (haha in short more holes) and figures you to be drawing against his top pair( more holes), a set (~12 holes). Again I apologize for all the rough estimates as I know many of you would like me to be more anal about my numbers. But in short if you combined the number of holes he could be playing which could easily be over a hundred so lets say x&gt;100 that would make you ahead as of right now in the hand meaning the flop, then the odds of his [censored] holes that aren't beating you versus his holes that have you drawing dead are (100&lt;x&lt;200):~36 holes that could beat you. Although I know immediately it could be a bit devastating if you were wrong but in this situation long term without a read you are doing better by easily getting good odds that your hand is usually better than his being that statistically it is more favorable that he is playing a hand weaker than yours. IMO you should call as this situation like all of the other we write about on here shall come up thousands of times over a long term poker career.

PS Yes my post is confusing, as it also is confusing to me haha so please if you don't understand it at first look it over once again, in short I am saying that if he did this thousands of times as to satisfy the law of large numbers like a gambler would he his getting good odds that he is not beaten and long term will profit because of +EV.

[tap tap tappy]

Unfortunately though as my ratio of the villian's hands that are losing to his holes versus the villian's hands that are beating his current hand is about in short 2 or 3 to 1, so his explicit odds are about 2 or 3:1 at the lowest while his pot odds are nearly the reciprocal of that but not exactly so I dont know it may have been a good fold as his pot odds do not justify his call in comparison to his explicit odds.

[amoeba]

no implied odds when villain already all in.

[tap tap tappy]

Not to be a prick or anything but who ever said anything about implied odds because the word implied was never in one of my posts. I only spoke pot odds, and the odds of whether or not his hole beat villain's hole.