Flop of 888

PoBoy321 · #1 01-25-2005, 03:34 AM

I played in a small live tourney a little while ago when something very interesting came up. At the two tables of the tournament, at nearly the same time, both flops came 888. I am far from good with complex probabilities, so does anyone think that they could give some idea of what the chances of this are?

gamble4pro · #2 01-25-2005, 04:08 AM

Don't know how relevant might this result be for you. Anyway: disregarding you are playing at one of those tables and disregarding your own hole cards (if you are in), the odds of both flop to come 888 at those tables in same time are: (C(4,3)/C(52,3))*(C(4,3)/C(52,3))= 0.000000327%. So, almost null.

gamble4pro · #3 01-25-2005, 04:10 AM

Sorry, 0.00000327% . Still almost null [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

pzhon · #4 01-25-2005, 06:07 AM

If both flops had been 999, would you have posted the same thing? How about AKQ of spades?

How many tables were there? How close is "nearly the same time?"

Without knowing what you would consider an essentially similar pattern, or how many attempts there were, the probability doesn't mean much.

gaming_mouse · #5 01-25-2005, 05:54 PM

[ QUOTE ]
If both flops had been 999, would you have posted the same thing? How about AKQ of spades?

How many tables were there? How close is "nearly the same time?"

Without knowing what you would consider an essentially similar pattern, or how many attempts there were, the probability doesn't mean much.

[/ QUOTE ]

My thoughts exactly.

gm

PoBoy321 · #6 01-26-2005, 02:14 AM

OK, this was just kind of a question out of curiosity, rather than anything remotely important. Say, for arguments sake, it was close enough that 888 was dealt at one table and within 5 hands, 888 was dealt at the second table (at the second table, I folded an 8 pre-flop). If this is just a stupid question feel free to disregard it, I was just kinda curious and thought that this would be the place to ask.

chadash · #7 01-26-2005, 03:45 PM

wouldn't the % be a little higher. you made the assumption that none of the cards are known since you went 52 c 3. But would you calc the % from 50 cards since you know what your two hole cards are. just want some clarification on the % calc. Am I wrong with this thinking?
thx
Airan [img]/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]