Hero vs. Villain - good play by both?

[rootsmusic]

Hi. 10-handed NL holdem, $1 BB ($100 buy-in). Table is average to passive, everyone close to the buy-in. Players are thinking, esp. post flop, but play is loosish preflop, with ~%35 of players seeing the flop. I suspect that play by all was correct, want to see what opinions are. The hand:

BB (~$100)
Villain (UTG, ~$98)
Hero (CO, $91)

Pre-Flop:
Villain limps, utg+1 limps, mp limps, folded to hero, Hero limps with JcTc, button folds, SB folds, BB raises to $3, everyone calls, Hero in CO calls.

Flop (~$15 in pot, five players):
Kc 9c 5c

BB bets $3, Villain thinks for a second and raises to $20, folded to Hero who raises all-in to $88.

Reads: No extensive reads but I felt BB's bet weak, probably hated the unitone flop and wants to see the action with his AK, QQ, JJ, etc. not KK. Villain however definitely has a hand, probably at least 2-pair, very likely a set. Maybe AcK. Post flop I haven't seen him make big bluffs--most big pots at this table were a result of big hand vs. big hand, not a lot of aggro bluffing and re-bluffing. I have been playing a standard TAG game, loosening up in position preflop, but generally tight and not getting out of line.

Hero's thinking (this might be obvious): I have the flush, Villain clearly has a hand, has made a pot-sized raise, appears willing to call big bet. Not worried about BB. I don't want to see more clubs and am willing to take it down here, assuming I can be sucked out on. I think it unlikely that Villain has lower flush, set or top-pair/nut draw more likely, leaning towards set because of initial utg limp. If he does have set, I want him to pay as much as possible to fill up. The way I see it, with my all-in he is getting 1.85-1 on his call (calling 68 to win 126), and if he has a set he is a 2-1 underdog. Of course he can't "know" I have a flush, though I am clearly representing that, and if he actually does have the set, and allows for some other possible hands I might be holding, calling here with slightly less than 2-1 is not a bad play. Then again, assuming he doesn't have KK (no pf raise or limp-reraise), I could have a bigger set and then he would be a huge underdog, neither with a chance at the flush.

How was hero's play?
If in villain's shoes, what hands do you call with, what do you fold?

thanks, results to follow.

[phil_ivey_fan]

I like your play. I seriously doubt villan would push w/ a flush, esp a flush that beats yours. I'd put him on a set or maybe 2pr. That's a big raise for AK...

Yeah, I'd narrow it to a set or AK offsuit w/ Ac

[rootsmusic]

OK, I guess this hand is too straightforward to elicit many differing opinions. Obviously I believe that Hero played it perfectly, my real curiosity was about Villain.

He had: 5h 5d

He waited a minute or so and then called my allin.

Turn: 4c
River: Ks

His boat beats my flush.

I guess my real question about this hand is, in Villain's place, do you ALWAYS call with set of 5's. Under what circumstances do you throw it away?

I suppose in his spot, getting 1.85-to-1, I likely call a great majority of the time, maybe toss it rarely if I have a strong read on a player's tightness.

Thanks, next time I'll post a hand where my play is more questionable to get some more opinions. Peace.

[phil_ivey_fan]

with your reraise, his call is marginal w/out top set. I'd of folded the set for shizzle.