Optimal Strategy vs All-in-every hand: how do I calculate?

[Moose]

Gentlemen,

in S&M's Tournament Poker for Advanced Players, they talk about how, if two players are heads-up with $10k, and the blinds are (I believe) $100 each, and one player moves all-in preflop on every hand, the absolute best the other player can achieve is a slightly better than 61% chance of winning, and that's assuming he knows exactly what hands offer a big enough edge to warrant moving in preflop.

I am trying to contrive a general function where you would input what proportion of the chips you have, and what size the blinds are, to come up with a probability P, which means that calling the all-in with any hand that has better than P probability of beating a random hand is the optimal play.

For instance, in this specific example, assuming that it's the first hand, P=0.61, meaning that a call with 66+, A8s/ATo+, KJs, KQs or KQo is warranted.

So... how do I even go about calculating this. Mr. Sklansky, if you're reading this, how did you come up with the formulas you reached in your book? Be as technical as necessary, anything I don't understand right away, I will research. I'm just itching to know!

Moose.

[LinusKS]

I don't have any answers for you, Moose, but if I can add a plea of my own, I'd very much like to know how to calculate other percentages - like when the blinds are one-tenth of your stack, or one-fifth.

Thanks!

[parappa]

[ QUOTE ]
Gentlemen,

in S&M's Tournament Poker for Advanced Players, they talk about how, if two players are heads-up with $10k, and the blinds are (I believe) $100 each, and one player moves all-in preflop on every hand, the absolute best the other player can achieve is a slightly better than 61% chance of winning, and that's assuming he knows exactly what hands offer a big enough edge to warrant moving in preflop.

I am trying to contrive a general function where you would input what proportion of the chips you have, and what size the blinds are, to come up with a probability P, which means that calling the all-in with any hand that has better than P probability of beating a random hand is the optimal play.

For instance, in this specific example, assuming that it's the first hand, P=0.61, meaning that a call with 66+, A8s/ATo+, KJs, KQs or KQo is warranted.

So... how do I even go about calculating this. Mr. Sklansky, if you're reading this, how did you come up with the formulas you reached in your book? Be as technical as necessary, anything I don't understand right away, I will research. I'm just itching to know!

Moose.

[/ QUOTE ]

Do a search for Eastbay's posts. The clearest statements on this topic on these boards were, imo, made by him.