Was I wrong to bluff to induce a bluff?

[Eeegah]

My second hand with this villain; no read whatsoever.

PokerStars 0.25/0.50 Hold'em (10 handed) converter

Preflop: Hero is Button with K[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img].
<font color="#666666">5 folds</font>, MP3 calls, <font color="#666666">1 fold</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises</font>, <font color="#666666">2 folds</font>, MP3 calls.

Flop: (5.40 SB) Q[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], 4[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], Q[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
MP3 checks, Hero checks.

Turn: (2.70 BB) 6[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] <font color="#0000FF">(2 players)</font>
<font color="#CC3333">MP3 bets</font>, <font color="#CC3333">Hero raises</font>...

If he had a queen, I'm drawing dead. I also know that a slowplay is likely; I checked the flop to see if I can induce a bluff on his part. He did, and I'm responding to what may be his bluff with my own bluff. I fully intend to fold if I'm reraised, but was this line a bad idea?