Checking some stuff re: RoR

[DavidC]

Normal Distribution of Hourly Rate

[ QUOTE ]
Bankroll needed = -(standard deviation^2/2*avg, win per hour)ln(the risk you are willing to accept).


[/ QUOTE ]

Plugging in some numbers:

SD: 15 bb/100
WR: 2 bb/100
RoR: 0.1%

You'd need 388 bb....

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Questions:

1) Is this correct (the formula)?

2) Is this correct (the result)?

3) Can I use bb/100 and sd/100 in this formula?

Edit: At 1% Risk of Ruin, you'd only need 225 bb.

Edit: At 3.5 bb/100 and 0.1% RoR, you'd be looking again at requiring only 225 bb... So it obviously becomes much less risky as you have a higher winrate.

[DavidC]

from some earlier post

Also, am I correct to assume that the two formulas are the same, just that one isolates B and the other isolates r?

B = -(sigma^2/2u)ln(r)
r = exp(-2uB/sigma^2)

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Is this the formula that I should be using?

[DavidC]

[ QUOTE ]
from some earlier post

Also, am I correct to assume that the two formulas are the same, just that one isolates B and the other isolates r?

B = -(sigma^2/2u)ln(r)
r = exp(-2uB/sigma^2)

------

Is this the formula that I should be using?

[/ QUOTE ]

Okay, I'm laughing at myself now.

These are the same formula, with the exception of slightly different terminology and one being more compact since it's written in math symbols).

However, I'm glad I found the post still, because it had isolated for ROR instead of bankroll as well...

I guess these are correct... but someone please give me a "yep" if the third question is on the money too.

[DavidC]

bump... #3 is the important one.

Just want to point out that you may be the only poster in the history of 2+2 to reply to yourself three times before anyone else does. [img]/images/graemlins/wink.gif[/img] Also wanted to save you from #4.