Two Plus Two Older Archives  

Go Back   Two Plus Two Older Archives > General Gambling > Probability
FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

Reply
 
Thread Tools Display Modes
  #1  
Old 04-10-2005, 06:38 PM
JoshuaD JoshuaD is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: NJ, USA
Posts: 341
Default Is there an easy way to figure out...

If the flop missed everyone? That is, for X opponents, how likely it is if the flop didn't pair anyone, for each of the three flop cases( 3 ranks, 2 ranks, and one rank)?

Knowing this could be useful in a blindsteal situation. I'm not looking for something that's 100% precise, just something that's easy to get an estimation from, like the "multiply outs by 2 for each street" trick you can use for figuring your odds on the flop.
Reply With Quote
  #2  
Old 04-11-2005, 10:12 AM
irchans irchans is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2002
Posts: 157
Default Re: Is there an easy way to figure out...

The general formula is

p = C[52 - iRanks*4, 2*iOpp]/C[52, 2*iOpp]

where C is the choose function, iRanks is the number of ranks on the flop, iOpp is the number of opponents, and p is the probability that none of those opponents get a pair, trips, or quads.

The table below shows all the probabilities.


<font class="small">Code:</font><hr /><pre>
1 Rank 2 Ranks 3 Ranks

0.959 0.804 0.663 1 opponents miss
0.918 0.641 0.431 2 opponents miss
0.878 0.505 0.274 3 opponents miss
0.837 0.393 0.171 4 opponents miss
0.796 0.302 0.103 5 opponents miss
0.755 0.229 0.061 6 opponents miss
0.714 0.170 0.034 7 opponents miss
0.673 0.124 0.019 8 opponents miss
0.633 0.089 0.010 9 opponents miss
</pre><hr />

For example, if you have 4 opponents and there are 3 ranks on the flop (no pair and no trip), then the probability that none of them has a pair is 17.1%.
Reply With Quote
  #3  
Old 04-11-2005, 12:35 PM
JoshuaD JoshuaD is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: NJ, USA
Posts: 341
Default Re: Is there an easy way to figure out...

Awesome, exactly what I wanted. Thanks.
Reply With Quote
  #4  
Old 04-11-2005, 05:00 PM
pzhon pzhon is offline
Member
 
Join Date: Mar 2004
Posts: 66
Default Re: Is there an easy way to figure out...

[ QUOTE ]
The general formula is

p = C[52 - iRanks*4, 2*iOpp]/C[52, 2*iOpp]

[/ QUOTE ]
You should be dividing by the number of possibilities given the flop you see, so that should be C[49, 2*iOpp] even if you are ignoring the cards you have.

If you do want to use the information about the cards you have, then if you have n cards in the ranks of the flop, the conditional probability everyone else has none is

C[52-4 iRanks - (2-n), 2 iOpp]
------------------------------
C[47, 2 iOpp]

Keep in mind that this counts having an overpair or flopping a flush or straight as missing the flop. If I have A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] K[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] and the flop is 4[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 3[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 2[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], I would think of that as hitting the flop very hard.
Reply With Quote
  #5  
Old 04-11-2005, 10:26 PM
JoshuaD JoshuaD is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2004
Location: NJ, USA
Posts: 341
Default Re: Is there an easy way to figure out...

Yea, I agree pzhon, but it's nice to just have an estimate in your head, and the easiest way to do that I figure is with pairings. The more coordinated the board is the higher probability someone has a piece of it, but it's nice to have a starting point.
Reply With Quote
  #6  
Old 04-13-2005, 01:47 PM
irchans irchans is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2002
Posts: 157
Default Re: Is there an easy way to figure out...

[ QUOTE ]
[ QUOTE ]
The general formula is

p = C[52 - iRanks*4, 2*iOpp]/C[52, 2*iOpp]

[/ QUOTE ]
You should be dividing by the number of possibilities given the flop you see, so that should be C[49, 2*iOpp] even if you are ignoring the cards you have.

If you do want to use the information about the cards you have, then if you have n cards in the ranks of the flop, the conditional probability everyone else has none is

C[52-4 iRanks - (2-n), 2 iOpp]
------------------------------
C[47, 2 iOpp]

Keep in mind that this counts having an overpair or flopping a flush or straight as missing the flop. If I have A[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] K[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] and the flop is 4[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 3[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] 2[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], I would think of that as hitting the flop very hard.

[/ QUOTE ]

Thanks pzhon,

I incorrectly typed the formula rather than cutting and pasting [img]/images/graemlins/tongue.gif[/img] . The table I gave is correct, but

p = C[52 - iRanks*4, 2*iOpp]/C[52 - 3, 2.*iOpp]

as you said.
Reply With Quote
  #7  
Old 05-02-2005, 06:47 PM
LINES LINES is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2005
Posts: 101
Default Re: Is there an easy way to figure out...

The formula that phzon posted is the correct one?
Reply With Quote
Reply


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -4. The time now is 08:31 PM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.