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#1
02-08-2005, 10:47 PM
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interesting odds question
correct me if im wrong but somewhere in the back of the orignal super system there is a list of odds of being dealt 2 specific cards preflop. im a pretty smart guy and know that being dealt any 2 random cards out of a deck are the same as any 2 other random cards. what i want to know is why do the odds differ when he talks about getting pocket aces, kings, queens....? shouldnt they all be the same? if anyone needs clarification on what i am saying i will make the trip out to my car and get the book and quote the exact page and passage but currently i am too comfortable.
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#3
02-08-2005, 10:59 PM
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Re: interesting odds question
i took that in account but he says the odds of kings and queens and even 2's and such are different.
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#5
02-09-2005, 03:20 AM
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Re: interesting odds question
Fortunately I have Super System v 1 and Super System v 2 within reach of my computer. [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]
I think the table you mean is probably Table 1 in the appendix on page 558 of my book. In it you see The probability of being dealt a specific hand before the draw: Aces 4.81% Kings 3.13% The reason for this is the game in question is 5 card draw WITH A JOKER. The Joker can be used as an Ace, or to complete a flush or straight. So a joker and a king is not a pair. A joker and an ace is a pair. That is the reason the probability is different. If instead you mean the hold'em table (table 18 on page 572 of my printing) there he lists probabilities of certain hands preflop and has: AA 0.45% KK-JJ (combined) 1.36% TT-66 (combined) 2.26% 55-22 (combined) 1.81% And here the KK-JJ doesn't mean that the odds of a KK is 1.36% it means the odds of one of KK, QQ, or JJ combined is 1.36%. You can tell this as 1.36 = 3*0.45; 2.26 = 5*0.45; 1.81 = 4*0.45 (well approximately anyways).
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