Is it EVER correct to call pre-flop, but then fold to a pre-flop raise

[teddyFBI]

I see this time and again at the 3/6 tables: players call pre-flop, and it gets raised behind them, and then instead of calling to see the flop, they muck. It seems most prevalent when the preflop raiser is in one of the blinds: i guess they figure a blind out of position must REALLY have a monster hand in order to raise.

Is this EVER correct?
sure, sometimes I make a loose preflop call with something like QTo, and it gets raised behind me, and i figure I'm probably behind, and maybe even dominated, but i figure the extra $ in the pot more than compensates for starting a little behind.

[Trix]

Pretty much no, if you weren´t in the SB.
Sthief posted about this like a while ago, try searching for that, there will be more info.

[Zetack]

[ QUOTE ]
I see this time and again at the 3/6 tables: players call pre-flop, and it gets raised behind them, and then instead of calling to see the flop, they muck. It seems most prevalent when the preflop raiser is in one of the blinds: i guess they figure a blind out of position must REALLY have a monster hand in order to raise.

Is this EVER correct?
sure, sometimes I make a loose preflop call with something like QTo, and it gets raised behind me, and i figure I'm probably behind, and maybe even dominated, but i figure the extra $ in the pot more than compensates for starting a little behind.

[/ QUOTE ]

I can't tell you if its correct or not, but I never do it--at least not for one more bet. I may fold if comes back to me three bet or capped.

I will however complete from the small blind (in a .5 small bet structure) and sometimes (ok rarely--but sometimes) fold to a raise from the big blind. I expect that wouldn't be right in a 1/3 small blind structure--if its good enough to complete there it should be good enought to stay in for a one bet raise.

--Zetack

[sfer]

Wasn't Josh's post about having to call 2 cold back to you after an openraise? I've seen him do that about 4 times and those folds were pretty routine each time. He would openraise in the CO or CO-1 and some combination of the button/blinds would 3-bet and then cap. I'd fold AQ/AJ in those spots unless they were total LAGs.

[sprmario]

This is talked about in SSH I believe. If you call 1 bet you should call a 2nd, but if it's raised and reraised then you should tighten up again to the same standards as cold calling 2 to begin with. This is what I recall but I could be wrong.

[ErrantNight]

that's correct.... always call for one more bet. always. when it's 2 more bets to stay... apply the same standards as if you hadn't yet committed any money to the pot (e.g.: as if calling 2 bets cold)

[Joe826]

The only time i've ever done this is when I accidentally limp with a junk hand or when the SB is 2/3s of the BB and I complete with some bad hands getting great odds but have to fold when the BB raises.

[BigBaitsim (milo)]

In my home game this one fellas wife sometimes plays. If she raises preflop after I limp, I probably fold, because a raise can only mean she somehow already has a set, despite having been dealt only two cards. But aside from her, I call.

-Milo

[atrifix]

Potentially it could be. For example, you limp up front with AQ, everyone folds to the button, who only raises with AA, KK, QQ, and AK. Folding to his raise would be prudent. However, these instances are so rare that you can more or less ignore them.

[me454555]

For 1 raise, no. 2 raises, thats a different story. I've limped w/a small pp and button will raise and bb will 3bet. Usally its only 4 handed and I'm not calling 2 more to flop a set