Overplayed TPTK? Party 6-man 25NL

[JustPlayingSmart]

I have 91.25 and Villain has 47.80.

I am dealt A [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], and I raise to $2 after a limper. SB, BB (villain), and limper call.

Flop comes 4 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] K [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]. SB bets $4, villain calls, limper folds, I raise to $17 SB folds, villain calls. After this action I put villain on a flush draw.

Turn is 3 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]. I bet $25, and villain calls.

River is Q [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]. Villain pushes in his last $3.80 and I call.

Did I overdo it here?

[durron597]

Why would you put villian on a flush draw? He's just bet 1/3 of his stack flatcalling you. I check behind on the turn, and check-call the river. My guess is he had 44.

[PokerFink]

Agreed. Or maybe he had Q-4. I think you pushed too hard on the turn.

[SpiderMnkE]

I certainly don't see how calling a $13 raise on the flop means he has a flush draw. I'd have to assume he at least paired something to go along with the draw... if he does in fact have a draw.

After he calls the turn... I'm just checking through the river.

If he has a K you win... but I can't see what else this guy is calling this much with that doesn't beat a pair. However.. he never raised... so know knows.. maybe he does have a weaker K.

Do you put him on a draw because he is only calling? Why does the action say it's a draw?

[Wayfare]

Why not raise a little more preflop and then not have to guess about it so much on the flop? [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]