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  #1  
Old 07-24-2004, 02:30 PM
Vee Quiva Vee Quiva is offline
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Default Theory of Poker, does it apply?

TOP states that everytime a player makes a play that he would not make if he knew your cards he is making a mistake. My question relates to manipulating the size of the pot.

Some of Sklansky's books recommend not raising a pot if you have a high pair versus someone on a straight or flush draw. That way when the draw stays in he is not getting the proper pot odds to call.

My thinking is that if the high pair is ahead in the hand and it is 4-1 to make a flush or 5-1 to make the straight, why aren't you just raising every time. I would think you want these pots to be as big as possible because you are in the lead. It doesn't matter if your opponet gets the proper odds to call because over 10,000 hands he is going to win some of them, but you are going to win 4 or 5 times more of them.

Now if you are the one drawing, obviously pot odds and implied odds are vital. I just don't get the point of manipulating the size of the pot if you are ahead.

Am I totally off base here?
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  #2  
Old 07-24-2004, 09:23 PM
topgun32 topgun32 is offline
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Default Re: Theory of Poker, does it apply?

In theory of poker Sklansky talks about odds to draw to a flush after the flop is 4 to 1. 9 outs and 37 non-outs.

Isnt it really 9 out of 47 which is closer to 5 to 1? I mean if i have 5 cards and said find the ace. That would be 1 in 5 chance, not 1-4. Whats the difference?
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  #3  
Old 07-25-2004, 12:55 AM
Nottom Nottom is offline
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Default Re: Theory of Poker, does it apply?

9 outs and 37 non-outs is for figuring out the odds of hitting after the turn.

Also odds are usually expressed in the form (chance of happening)chance of not happening). So saying something happens 1-time-in-5 is the same as saying the odds are 4-to-1 against.

I haven't read ToP in a while, so I'm not sure of how well it explains how to do the math, but if you need help with such things I would recommend "Getting the Best of It" also by Sklansky.
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