11-29-2005, 04:33 PM
Okay, im familiar with the concept of pushing allin when shorthanded and theres dead money in the pot. for instance on button, with blinds of 150/300 and a chip stack of 500 id push allin with an ace. im a little confused on the concept. what constitutes dead money?
what if someone raises from early position up to 300 when the blinds are only 15/30. i still have the same chip stack. isnt the 300 the guy just put in the pot also dead money? obviously i dont push here. but why not? lets say i knew it was a race?
wouldnt it be the same thing if the blinds were at 150/300 and i was pushing with AK and i knew the bb had TT and would call? isnt there a difference between the blinds folding and it being a race between two players other than the blinds compared to a race between one player not in the blind and the bb? because the bb has already put money in the pot, he doesnt have to contribute as much as i do, so the dead money really isnt adding that much to my pot odds. only the dead money the sb folds is adding to my pot odds right? sorry for rambling hope this is understandable.
what if someone raises from early position up to 300 when the blinds are only 15/30. i still have the same chip stack. isnt the 300 the guy just put in the pot also dead money? obviously i dont push here. but why not? lets say i knew it was a race?
wouldnt it be the same thing if the blinds were at 150/300 and i was pushing with AK and i knew the bb had TT and would call? isnt there a difference between the blinds folding and it being a race between two players other than the blinds compared to a race between one player not in the blind and the bb? because the bb has already put money in the pot, he doesnt have to contribute as much as i do, so the dead money really isnt adding that much to my pot odds. only the dead money the sb folds is adding to my pot odds right? sorry for rambling hope this is understandable.