Marsellus
05-15-2003, 01:42 AM
while i was working out drawing odds the other night i ran into a situation that confused me and i am hoping someone may be able to clarify the scenario for me.
suppose you hold 9 /forums/images/icons/diamond.gif T /forums/images/icons/diamond.gif in late position and limp into the pot. suppose the flop comes down J /forums/images/icons/club.gif 7 /forums/images/icons/spade.gif 2 /forums/images/icons/heart.gif giving you a gutshot straight draw. any 8 would give me the nut straight. the way that i have calculated the odds of completing this hand is as follows:
1 - (43/47 * 42/46) = .16 or 16 %. indicating that i will complete this hand 16% of the time. convert that to odds and you'll arrive at .84/.16 = 5.25:1 against.
now before working this out, i would normally look for about 11:1 to call a flop bet under this circumstance which is essentially what you would arrive at if you calculated your odds one card at a time.
i don't think that anyone would argue that when you have flopped a 4 flush, you'll complete your hand about 35% of the time or converted to odds, 1.85 to 1 against which essentially makes it almost always correct to draw to a flush when you have flopped a four flush.
my question is should i be looking for 11 to 1 (pot odds) when i have flopped a gutshot draw or the 5.25 to 1 (calculation shown above)? and if i am not supposed to use the 5.25 to 1 calculation based on multiplying turn and river chances, then why is it ok and accepted to calculate a four flush based on the multiplication of turn and river chances? (ie. (1 - (38/47 * 37/46)) = .35 or (.65/.35) 1.85:1 against.)
i'm confused about this and would appreciate some clarification. /forums/images/icons/confused.gif
suppose you hold 9 /forums/images/icons/diamond.gif T /forums/images/icons/diamond.gif in late position and limp into the pot. suppose the flop comes down J /forums/images/icons/club.gif 7 /forums/images/icons/spade.gif 2 /forums/images/icons/heart.gif giving you a gutshot straight draw. any 8 would give me the nut straight. the way that i have calculated the odds of completing this hand is as follows:
1 - (43/47 * 42/46) = .16 or 16 %. indicating that i will complete this hand 16% of the time. convert that to odds and you'll arrive at .84/.16 = 5.25:1 against.
now before working this out, i would normally look for about 11:1 to call a flop bet under this circumstance which is essentially what you would arrive at if you calculated your odds one card at a time.
i don't think that anyone would argue that when you have flopped a 4 flush, you'll complete your hand about 35% of the time or converted to odds, 1.85 to 1 against which essentially makes it almost always correct to draw to a flush when you have flopped a four flush.
my question is should i be looking for 11 to 1 (pot odds) when i have flopped a gutshot draw or the 5.25 to 1 (calculation shown above)? and if i am not supposed to use the 5.25 to 1 calculation based on multiplying turn and river chances, then why is it ok and accepted to calculate a four flush based on the multiplication of turn and river chances? (ie. (1 - (38/47 * 37/46)) = .35 or (.65/.35) 1.85:1 against.)
i'm confused about this and would appreciate some clarification. /forums/images/icons/confused.gif