BATMAN...
12-21-2002, 10:52 PM
In a recent A.G. column, he describes a hand where one guy has As,Ac, and the other has Kh,Qh. The flop is Jh,10h,2c.
He says that the winner is a coin flip with the AA having a 1% edge. I am very much a beginner and can not figure this one out.
I thought that the AA would be about a 2:1 favorite.
That is 45 cards not seen after they got all in before the flop. The KQ has the four 9's and the 2 A's plus 7 hearts for a total of 13 cards that will help.
That's 32/13 in favor of the AA. Now, I know A.G. is correct, but I don't know where I am going wrong on this calculation. Thanks for any help.
He says that the winner is a coin flip with the AA having a 1% edge. I am very much a beginner and can not figure this one out.
I thought that the AA would be about a 2:1 favorite.
That is 45 cards not seen after they got all in before the flop. The KQ has the four 9's and the 2 A's plus 7 hearts for a total of 13 cards that will help.
That's 32/13 in favor of the AA. Now, I know A.G. is correct, but I don't know where I am going wrong on this calculation. Thanks for any help.