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MyMindIsGoing
03-13-2005, 05:31 AM
Lets say I have AK and flop is KJx, what is the chance someone flopped top two pair with KJ?

Cobra
03-13-2005, 01:17 PM
We will find out the probability of one or more of your opponents having top two pair. You would solve this by using inclusion-exclusion and determining two terms. What we know is that there is 47 unseen cards, 2k, 3j, and 42 other cards.

First term=3*2/(47 c 2) = .00555

Second term=6*2/(47 c 2)/(45 c 2)=.000011

Multiply the two terms by number of opponents than subtract the first term from the second.

9*.00555-(9c2)*.000011=.04955 or 1 in 20.2 times.

Cobra

BruceZ
03-13-2005, 01:40 PM
[ QUOTE ]
Multiply the two terms by number of opponents than subtract the first term from the second.

9*.00555-(9c2)*.000011=.04955 or 1 in 20.2 times.

[/ QUOTE ]

This assumes that all 9 opponents see the flop, (and that they all hold random hands).