pittisit
11-10-2004, 11:27 PM
I have been getting beaten up with sets to my overpairs recently and was just wondering about my calculations here..... here is one example of a hand
Sorry no converter....100NL i have QQ make it $10 to go,
3 early limpers call...POT ~$45
flop 679
checked to me i bet $30,
guy reraises me for all his chips which makes it $60 more to me..pot now around $160..
obvious set rigth...anyway my question is what % of the time does this guy not have to have a set for my call to be correct instead of folding and losing $45 100% of the time...could someone please show me the correct way to figure this out..i did it in my own little way an come up with a number somewhere around 20% of the time he has to have a hand like A9 for my call to be better than a fold..Obviously if i knew he had a set a fold is best..but in these games you just never know.
Sorry no converter....100NL i have QQ make it $10 to go,
3 early limpers call...POT ~$45
flop 679
checked to me i bet $30,
guy reraises me for all his chips which makes it $60 more to me..pot now around $160..
obvious set rigth...anyway my question is what % of the time does this guy not have to have a set for my call to be correct instead of folding and losing $45 100% of the time...could someone please show me the correct way to figure this out..i did it in my own little way an come up with a number somewhere around 20% of the time he has to have a hand like A9 for my call to be better than a fold..Obviously if i knew he had a set a fold is best..but in these games you just never know.