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#1
08-17-2002, 10:54 PM
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poker

I was reading a poker book and the author said if you have 2 jacks there's about a 50% chance of getting an overcard on the flop(is that correct and if so would someone show me the way to figure it)

thanks
#2
08-18-2002, 12:03 AM
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Re: poker

Actually it's 57%.

There are 12 overcards out of 50 before the flop, so the probability of NOT getting one on the flop is:

(38/50)*(37/49)*(36/48) = 43%

So the probability of getting one is 57%.
#3
08-19-2002, 01:15 AM
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Re: poker

thanks for answering,however, do those numbers represent the odds of each card on the flop,for instance 38/50 is for the first cardwhich is about a 1in4 chanceof hitting an overcard,how do the next 2 cards move the odds to 57%? I am trying to understand

thanks again

#4
08-19-2002, 03:13 AM
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Re: poker

Yes, each number is the probability of each card on the flop not being an overcard.
#5
08-19-2002, 03:16 AM
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Re: poker

I should say, each number is the probability of each successive card on the flop not being an overcard given that the preceding card(s) were not overcards.
#6
08-30-2002, 09:10 AM
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Re: poker

The more useful number in this situation is the probability that you get a jack or do not get an overcard.

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