Hand 2 ($100 PLO8b)

[Spladle Master]

Villain: ( $65.40)
Hero: ( $141.30)
Seat 9 posts small blind (0.50)
Seat 10 posts big blind (1)
** Dealing down cards **
Dealt Hero [ 3[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 5[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 3[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], 2[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] ]
3 folds.
Villain raises (3.50) to 3.50
Hero calls (3.50)
Seat 8 calls (3.50)
2 folds.
** Dealing Flop ** : [ J[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img], 3[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img], A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] ]
Villain bets (11.40)
Hero raises (45.60) to 45.60
Seat 8 folds.
Villain raises (50.50) to 61.90
Villain is all-In.
Hero calls (16.30)

In this hand my opponent was very loose and aggressive on all streets. That is why I decided to call pre-flop. If it had been a very tight player who raised, I would have folded. If I had no read on the raiser, I likely would have called because calling is more fun than folding. Also, I had position on the raiser. Is this call correct? I believe I would have played the flop how I did regardless of my opponent. Is that a good idea?

This also looks fine to me, barring any opponent-specific reads. If you can put him on AAxx reliably, then a call might be the better play, but you have a big draw there to go with a decent made hand.