Do previous hands influence how you play a particular hand?

[Rvr_B_Good]

(my first post so go easy guys...)

MTT
1st round, 3rd hand
Blinds 25-50
I'm one to the rigt of the button and everyone folds to me I call 50 with A [img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] Q [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]
button folds SB calls BB checks

Flop A [img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 9 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img] 6 [img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img]

SB bets 150
BB folds
I raise to 300
SB quickly throws in 750
(now i had just had 99 previous hand and hand before that another player had 44-so my thinking was he probably didn't have a set and he would not have just called with AK)
I push, he calls
turns over A [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img] 9 [img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img]
turn and river were blanks.

other than not thinking about two pair, was it right to assume he wouldn't have a set or AK? and would it have been better to raise to 150? 200? on the opening bet?
(don't really know this player's style)

[burningyen]

The good news is you found this forum. The bad news is your post is hard to follow, and the parenthetical about having 99 the previous hand seems to indicate that your thinking on probability and hand distribution is confused. (Do you think that when you flip a coin and it lands heads that it is more likely to land tails the next time? Because that seems to be analogous to what you're saying about poker hand distribution.) If I were you I'd let this thread die and dive into some books like Theory of Poker, Getting Started in Hold'em, No-Limit and Pot-Limit Poker, and Harrington on Hold'em.