Implied Odds Question, AA

PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em Tourney, Big Blind is t100 (9 handed) FTR converter on zerodivide.cx

MP2 (t4505)
MP3 (t975)
CO (t945)
Button (t2210)
Hero (t2400)
BB (t2865)
UTG (t2490)
UTG+1 (t5425)
MP1 (t3330)

Preflop: Hero is SB with A[img]/images/graemlins/spade.gif[/img], A[img]/images/graemlins/diamond.gif[/img].
[color=#666666]1 fold</font>, UTG+1 calls t100, MP1 calls t100, [color=#666666]4 folds</font>, [color=#CC3333]Hero raises to t350</font>, [color=#666666]1 fold</font>, UTG+1 calls t250, MP1 calls t250.

What's your opinion on giving correct implied odds for someone to hit a set? My raise to 350 preflop was designed to be called preflop and I'll probably lose my stack if either of them has a pp and hits a set. But I don't mind. Is this poor thinking. To give incorrect implied odds, i'd have to raise to ~450, shutting out QK and QJ type hands that may pay me off if they flop top pair. By only raising to 350, assuming I'll pay them off w/ my stack every time they hit a set, I'm giving the first limper ~11 to 1 implied odds. Should I just kick it up to 450?

who says people don't call 450 w/ QK and QJ. I mean if there playing those hands from EP there gonna call raises with them. Your opponents can make bigger mistakes if you give them the chance to.

The ideal situation is one caller and one folder. 350 isn't going to normally get that done, but 450 has a good chance of doing so.

Then again I am of the belief that trying to maximize value out of aces can lead you down a dangerous path. If you play them like AK, you minimize risk and maximize deception.

exactly.