Mean Value Theorem Question

[Buckmulligan]

[ QUOTE ]


buck: they would not form a triangle. they would form a bell curve.



[/ QUOTE ]

the bell looks like a triangle though.

[ QUOTE ]
It's more of a statistics problem than a calc problem.

[/ QUOTE ]

Why would the mean value theorem not be applicable just because the data points come from the "real world?"

[milesdyson]

ok i guess. i think of the bell curve more as an upside down saggy breast.

[Buckmulligan]

I think it's better to look at with bell curves because it's easier to visualize, that's all.

[ QUOTE ]
ok i guess. i think of the bell curve more as an upside down saggy breast.

[/ QUOTE ]

Please, don't give me a rubbery one of the bell curve.

If I win 6BB/100, lose 3BB/100, win 6BB, lose 3BB and do this for ever.
My winrate is 3BB/100.

At what point along my graph would I ever show +3BB/100?

[Eeegah]

Without bothering to really go at it, I think it won't. It'll converge to 3.0 but not hit it.

Win rate isn't a continuous function so technically the MVT doesn't apply.

[milesdyson]

because poker winrates are stepwise functions, yes, the theorem does not technically apply. the theorem applies to continuous functions only. however if we were to apply a best-fit curve to the winrate, you would at some point show a +3 bb/100 winrate.

[Eeegah]

Hell it'd show a +3 winrate between every hand [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

[milesdyson]

okay let's nitpick. it would show +3 bb/100 between every other hand.