Forced to call (pot-odds)?

[Lucy Alexis Liu]

OK. I'm reading a poker magazine where scenarioes for a $100 buyin 10-seat NL cash-game hand is being discussed:

66 in the Big Blind. One of the options is reraising a presumably lone, weak opponent. But the problem being that the original raiser might push All-in, thereby possibly forcing you to call based on pot-odds.

My question is, what pot-odds would make calling the right think to do? And would it be with pretty much any two, or is it because it is a pair?

Thanks in advance for any replies.

Unless I'm getting direct odds for my set, I fold this like 99.999999% of the time unless I know he'll push with AK. A raise, and then coming over the top AGAIN is pretty strong.

Say someone raises to 5, and you reraise to 20...if he pushes over the top, then you still have to put in another $80. There's basically no way the odds are going to justify this call for me, but i suck at poker so :P

Don't think this question is answerable with knowing the specific stack sizes involved and what you mean by "weak" opponent. How is the opponent weak? weak-tight or crazily loose? What pot odds are you getting? There aren't a whole lot of situations in big stack NL where you'd have pot odds to call this. Maybe this isn't a very good poker magazine.

[scrapperdog]

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Don't think this question is answerable with knowing the specific stack sizes involved and what you mean by "weak" opponent. How is the opponent weak? weak-tight or crazily loose? What pot odds are you getting? There aren't a whole lot of situations in big stack NL where you'd have pot odds to call this. Maybe this isn't a very good poker magazine.

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NH

Someone check my math but you should hit your set about 20% of the time (if played to the river, and if you go all in your going there), therefore if you are getting 4:1 or better pot-odds you should make this play.

[scrapperdog]

[ QUOTE ]
Someone check my math but you should hit your set about 20% of the time (if played to the river, and if you go all in your going there), therefore if you are getting 4:1 or better pot-odds you should make this play.

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Nope this is one of those 5/10 rule situations we talked about yesterday. More on this is in the FAQ.

Not exactly. I understand the 5/10 rule, as explained in the FAQ it applies to calling a raise with position hoping to hit your set and hoping to stack your opponent with your well hiden set on later streets. This poster is asking about callin a re-re-raise all-in and the odds will be different based on money already in the pot and no betting on further streets. The odds work out the same way and we are really talking about similar scenarios, but I think 5/10 doesn't fit here.

[scrapperdog]

She said villian "might push all in" if she re-raises. That leads me to think villian has not done so. This question has so many holes in it that giving a proper response is hard, I am pretty confused by the question.

If you assume the villain only does this with bigger pocket pairs then thats true. If he does it with AK or AQ then its a lot less, probably closer to 3:1, meaning you're committed once you have around half your chips in. You have to run it in poker stove or something else that does hand range analysis for exact numbers.

how many times do you see someone do it with AQ. I don't think I ever have