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Old 12-18-2005, 10:18 AM
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Default Cold calling preflop maniacs

When there's a person at the table who preflop raises like 40% I feel a little unsecure on what hands I can call and reraise his raises with. So here's a few questions on the subject.

If I'm first to act after the preflop maniac has raised, should I reraise almost all hands? if so when should I not?

If there's a loose caller in it how should this affect my play?

If I'm OTB first to act after the preflop maniac has raised what hands can I play.

How does the blinds style affect my play?

Is there another thread on this?
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