Calling ranges without a good read – Is VP$IP useful?

I often get to a situation usually one from the bubble at level 5, where I have a possible push opportunity. But the BB has not yet called an all-in or not had the chance to call an all-in. So how to estimate a calling range?

Would their general tightness pre-flop relate closely to how they would play against an all in?
If I estimated from the VP$IP figures on them, would the average 33er call a push only with a better hand than their VP$IP suggested they would see a flop with?

[Freudian]

Yes, there is a correlation but it is not linear. Also you have to take into account that a lot of players play an inverted style compared to you, loose early and tight late.

[pooh74]

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Also you have to take into account that a lot of players play an inverted style compared to you, loose early and tight late.

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Oh yeah, that reminds me I have to send a lot of xmas cards out. thx

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Yes, there is a correlation but it is not linear.

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So what is the correlation?

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Also you have to take into account that a lot of players play an inverted style compared to you, loose early and tight late.

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So a push/fold player calls with lower ranked cards than VP$IP would suggest, in the later rounds. And the tight on the bubble players call with less hands than the VP$IP would suggest? Ignoring fold equity for a momnet.

[Freudian]

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So what is the correlation?

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Looser players have wider calling ranges. But a 60% VP$IP player does not have a twice as large calling range than a 30% VP$IP player. Most likely the difference is smaller, based on my experience.

And like I said, some loose players turn into rocks in the late stages of a SnG, especially if they have a big stack.

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But a 60% VP$IP player does not have a twice as large calling range than a 30% VP$IP player.

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I see what you mean,
Thanks