Baseball Rules Question: You make the call

[2planka]

This happened in my playoff game on Sunday.

Runner on 1st, none out. Batter lifts a pop fly behind the second base bag. Second baseman lines it up but notices that the batter-runner isn't running to first (he's cursing and throwing his bat instead). The ball hits the second baseman's glove, but he allows it to drop out onto the infield dirt before he had control of it. The second baseman retrieves the ball, throws to second, and the shortstop throws to first. What is the correct ruling?

[Voltron87]

are there umpires? if there are and they didnt call the infield fly rule, theyre both out. theres no excuse for the batter not to go to first.

[2planka]

There were umpires there. They made an incorrect call and the remainder of the game was played under protest.

[imported_The Vibesman]

The umps need to call the infield fly rule for it to be in effect. If it is in effect, the runner from first is responsibly for himself, and the batter was out before the ball comes down. Situations like this are the reason the rule was invented.

If the infield fly wasn't called, it's a double play. An incredibly cheesy one, but a DP nonetheless.

[Voltron87]

[ QUOTE ]
There were umpires there. They made an incorrect call and the remainder of the game was played under protest.

[/ QUOTE ]

When an infield fly situation occurs, is it mandatory for the umpires to declare it? Do they have to call it on every infield fly? If it's at the umpire's discretion to call it then both batters are clearly out.


There was a Yanks Sox game a couple weeks ago where there was a runner on first, a batter hits a high fly, which would land on the pitchers mound. 3 of the yankee infielders stood under it, the ball dropped, arod took it and threw to 2nd and the runner who started at 1st was out since he was waiting to tag at first. The umpires didn't call the infield fly rule there, and it was a high pop that landed on the pitchers mound, about as much infield fly as you can get. It was also advantageous for the Yankees to let the ball drop, the runner at first was a pinch runner (stern) and the batter was someone slower like millar or nixon, i forget who.

So in that case the umps did not call the rule into a effect, which makes me guess its at their discretion. If it is, both runners are out.

[jesusarenque]

The infield fly rule does NOT apply here. This a double play. There is no other correct answer. For the IFR to apply, there must be runners on first AND second, or the bases must be loaded.

[pudley4]

An infield fly rule can only be called if there are runners on 1st and 2nd, or the bases are loaded. The reason why the rule is in effect is to prevent a "cheap" double-play. Since the baserunners need to stay close to the base they're currently at (because they expect the ball to be caught), there's no way they could make it to the next base if the infielder drops the ball.

In this case, the batter could have easily prevented the double play by just jogging down to first. So, no infield fly rule. Double play.

[2planka]

Voltron, the key in your example is that none of the Yankees touched the ball before it hit the ground (Mirabelli was the batter, by the way).

[Voltron87]

[ QUOTE ]
The umps need to call the infield fly rule for it to be in effect. If it is in effect, the runner from first is responsibly for himself, and the batter was out before the ball comes down. Situations like this are the reason the rule was invented.

[/ QUOTE ]

That is very clear and makes sense.

I don't really see that theres that much advantage for the fielding team to do this if there is only one runner on, as long as the batter jogs the 90 feet to first. If there are two runners on, then obviously you can double them up but if there is only one on the batter can break up the double play very easily.

If there's only one runner on the fielding team can't abuse this to get a double play, so it doesnt seem necessary to call the infield fly rule, am I missing something? It does let the fielding team choose which runner is on base, but other than that it's not a big deal. I don't see why there needs to be a rule to prevent the fielding team doing this. Obviously there needs to be a rule preventing them from doing this when there are 2 runners on, I'm only talking about when there is one runner on first.

[Voltron87]

[ QUOTE ]
Voltron, the key in your example is that none of the Yankees touched the ball before it hit the ground (Mirabelli was the batter, by the way).

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How does that change the situation? The Yankee middle infielder which was under the ball (I forget whether it was cano or jeter) was shaping under the ball like they would catch it.