Two Plus Two Older Archives  

Go Back   Two Plus Two Older Archives > General Gambling > Probability
FAQ Community Calendar Today's Posts Search

Reply
 
Thread Tools Display Modes
  #1  
Old 06-23-2004, 03:33 PM
aloiz aloiz is offline
Junior Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2004
Posts: 4
Default Odds of 3 out of 4 getting flush

In my home game before starting we always deal an open face hold'em hand to determine dealer. On one occasion there was four of us playing, and after dealing the hand three of us were suited in clubs. The flop comes down with two clubs, and the river brought the third giving three of us the flush. We wondered what the odds were so I took a stab.

Assuming the following. Four hands dealt and everyone in to the river. Only three of the four can make the flush (not all four). The board may only contain three of the flush cards.

I took a shot at it a came up with something, but I'm sure there is a better way to do it.

Case 1: Fourth player's hole cards contains one of the flush cards)
C(4,3)*4*C(13,6)/C(52,6) * C(7,1)*C(39,1)/C(46,2) [hole cards] * C(6,3)*C(38,2)/C(44,5) [board]

Case 2: Fourth player has none of the flush cards
C(4,3)*4*C(13,6)/C(52,6) * C(39,2)/C(46,2) [hole cards] * C(7,3)*C(37,2)/C(44,5) [board]

Adding both cases I get 2.533E-5

Is this right? Can anyone show me a better way to do it?

Thanks,
aloiz
Reply With Quote
  #2  
Old 06-25-2004, 01:32 PM
BruceZ BruceZ is offline
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Sep 2002
Posts: 1,636
Default Re: Odds of 3 out of 4 getting flush

[ QUOTE ]
Assuming the following. Four hands dealt and everyone in to the river. Only three of the four can make the flush (not all four). The board may only contain three of the flush cards.

I took a shot at it a came up with something, but I'm sure there is a better way to do it.

Case 1: Fourth player's hole cards contains one of the flush cards)
C(4,3)*4*C(13,6)/C(52,6) * C(7,1)*C(39,1)/C(46,2) [hole cards] * C(6,3)*C(38,2)/C(44,5) [board]

Case 2: Fourth player has none of the flush cards
C(4,3)*4*C(13,6)/C(52,6) * C(39,2)/C(46,2) [hole cards] * C(7,3)*C(37,2)/C(44,5) [board]

Adding both cases I get 2.533E-5

Is this right? Can anyone show me a better way to do it?


[/ QUOTE ]

It is right, and I can show you a better way. You can avoid having two separate cases if you consider the board first.

4*C(13,3)*C(39,2) / C(52,5) * [ C(4,3)*C(10,6)/C(47,6) - C(4,3)*C(10,8)/C(47,8) ]

= 2.533E-5 = 1 in 39,480.

The first term is for the board. The term in [] is for the hole cards. The first player term multiplies the probability of 3 players being dealt 6 suited hole cards by the number of ways to pick the 3 players C(4,3). This counts the cases where all 4 players have a flush C(4,3) times, so this is subtracted in the last term. This is the inclusion-exclusion principle again, except in this case we start with the probability of 3 players having flush cards. In this way it is not necessary to explicitly consider how many flush cards the 4th player has.
Reply With Quote
  #3  
Old 06-25-2004, 01:56 PM
aloiz aloiz is offline
Junior Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2004
Posts: 4
Default Re: Odds of 3 out of 4 getting flush

Thanks, that makes sense. I wish I would of thought of that as it makes everything ten times easier, and much less prone to a stupid mistake. Also thanks for the link, great read.

aloiz
Reply With Quote
Reply


Posting Rules
You may not post new threads
You may not post replies
You may not post attachments
You may not edit your posts

BB code is On
Smilies are On
[IMG] code is On
HTML code is Off

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -4. The time now is 03:24 PM.


Powered by vBulletin® Version 3.8.11
Copyright ©2000 - 2024, vBulletin Solutions Inc.