Boring/standard hand: Overpair versus poss. flush

[stigmata]

Hi,

My first NL post so apologies if this is a common/boring situation. FWIW, Iv'e just started playing some NL and i'm very inexperienced. Pokerstars $3/6 game. Villain has been sitting out since I arrived, and posts BB+dead in the CO. Therefore I have no read. We both have around the buy-in each ($600).

I get dealt JJ UTG. I raise 4xBB. The CO (poster) calls, and it's HU.

Flop: Tc 9c 2h
I bet 2/3 pot. CO thinks for a few seconds and calls.

Turn: 4c
I don't have the Jack of clubs.
I bet 1/3 pot. Although the flush hit, I'm thinking he could also have something like AcTx or QcJx etc. Villain quickly calls.

River another offsuit rag. I check and call a half pot bet.

Comments an all streets appreciated, but I feel like I mangled the turn and the river. I guess I'm used to paying off in limit games. With some sort of read I would call the river against an over-aggro chump, and fold against tighter players. Is a river fold standard against an unkown player?

[JFB37]

[ QUOTE ]

Turn: 4c
I don't have the Jack of clubs.
I bet 1/3 pot. Although the flush hit, I'm thinking he could also have something like AcTx or QcJx etc.


[/ QUOTE ]

If you are putting him on a flush draw, not a made hand, then betting 1/3 of the pot is wrong. You are thereby giving him 4:1 and making it correct for him to call with the hands you think he has.

[stigmata]

Yeah, this was just fear & stupidity. Wasn't sure if I was way ahead, way behind, value betting, protecting my hand, trying to get to showdown cheap, etc..... so it just came out wrong.

I can't put him on a single hand, and therefore don't want to give up on the turn, so I should lead 2/3 on the turn again? If he still likes his hand then this makes the fold easier?