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A different way of looking at pot odds.
I seriously confused myself after thinking about this. Can anyone help me out?
Lets start with a situation. Player A and player B are playing heads up, and they each have 100 chips. Player A holds A[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img]J[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] and the flop comes 2[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] 6[img]/images/graemlins/heart.gif[/img] K[img]/images/graemlins/club.gif[/img] The pot currently contains 0 chips. Player A is first to act, and bets 99 of his 100 chips. Player B raises all in for 1 more. Now, Player A is asked to call 1 chip into a pot of 199. He is getting 199-1 on his money, so obviously he should call for the flush draw. So, by pot odds, player A made the right call, but were his odds really 1-199? Were his true pot odds 1-1? Because, obviously, if he had checked and player B bet 100, he would be getting incorrect odds to call, but the situation I described is basically the same thing. Anyways, I'm sure I confused alot of you with this, but I guess my question is, can pot odds be determined by all of the bets of that betting round, or just the single bet you are dealing with. |
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