1-5 Stud hand

[morgan]

Hi, my friend and I were involved in the following hand (1-5 stud):

I'm dealt split kings with a low kicker (and my kicker is duplicated elsewhere). There is no ace in sight. The bring-in is the player to my right. I limp, intending to limp-raise if possible. A couple more limpers, then the last player - my friend - raises to $5 with a queen. The bring-in calls -- a note about this player: he is an action player, and his call means only that he has decided to play this round with less than stellar cards; he never slow-plays and he will re-raise with just about anything a normal player would play with. I re-raise to $10 and everyone folds except the queen.

On 4th we both catch non-scary cards, I lead with $5, and he re-raises me to $10. Now, I don't remember exactly what card he caught on 4th, but it was low enough that I knew he wouldn't have raised to 5 on 3rd with a wired pair of it. I have played with this guy (a good friend of mine) many times and he has always slow-played rolled-up on third, so it is fairly safe to rule out 3 queens. So I figure him for queens-up, meaning I know his entire hand.

I check-call through 6th. On the river I make kings-up and we both check.

I will post the results later (as seems to be the custom) though my questions really don't really depend on the results.

Here are 2 questions (though comments/critiques welcome for any play in this hand):
1) Should he have re-raised me on 4th after making queens-up? This completely exposes his hand, and he should know me well enough to know that I will bet each round until I have reason not to (except possibly the river).
2) I feel I missed a clear value bet on the river. Although this player is capable of folding queens-up on the river. What do you think?

Thanks,

Morgan