Now a question for RJT, NotReady, and other believers

[jester710]

A few things:

First of all, I'm assuming that if David were convinced by the geniuses that Christianity was likely to be correct, he would do his best to live in accordance with it. Take that to mean what you will.

Now, back to the question of the validity of his faith. John 20:29- Jesus said to him, "Thomas, because you have seen me, you have believed. Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed."

I don't think Jesus is condemning the fact that Thomas had to see to believe here, but it seems He's definitely saying that it would've been better had he believed before seeing. So it seems that, sometimes at least, there are "better" reasons for belief.

I think one of the main problems one could raise with David's belief is that it would essentially be from man, not God (and really, it would be a faith in man, or at least in the wisdom of geniuses). But I am assuming that, after he is convinced by the geniuses, he is truly and sincerely convinced, and he believes completely. Is this different from a sincere faith that is inherited from one's parents and never questioned?

I don't feel like the Bible gives a very good or consistent answer to this. Some people, like the centurion who asked Jesus to heal his son, had faith based on little or no evidence. Others, like Paul, were hit over the head. Jesus was definitely a fan of the centurion's faith, but nowhere is Paul criticized for having God blatantly reveal Himself.