odd odds

[willthethrill]

i have a question about whether or not you think it is reasonable to play by the extra odds you could use. i'll show you what odds i mean in this example. say your in an 8 handed game and you get king nine and fold preflop. You watch the flop, turn and river and none of them are King or nine. say in a few hands you get king nine again. would you think that your odds of hitting your cards are better this time because last time you didn't hit?

[DemonDeac]

oh.......my.......god

<----------------------My reaction after reading post.

edited to include reaction

[DDH]

[ QUOTE ]
oh.......my.......god

[/ QUOTE ]

I agree.

Unless you factor in that with the second hand, you cap your cards with your lucky card cover. This will increase your chances of hitting your hand.

[sinfulslick18]

would the deck be shuffled corretly or the cards placed back on underneath. if the cards that you just used were placed right underneath. You know for a fact that 2 of your outs are at the bottom and you old another 2 of your outs. But if the deck is shuffled properly i doubt there would be a slight edge. its like getting back to back same pockets.. people will think they will set this time.

-sinful... you could ask the probability category

[AaronBrown]

Only if you put the first K 9 in your pocket and can slip them unobtrusively onto the board.

[XXXNoahXXX]

One day this guy flipped a coin and it came up heads, then bet me $1000 it would be heads again...I knew tails was due since it didn't come up last time, and sure enough I won the $1000. Moral of the story: If you call the second time you'll flop the full house.

[magiluke]

Wow... After reading the initial post, I just couldn't wait to see the slew of sarcastic responses you guys would post. I'm just glad you didn't let me down =D

[willthethrill]

thanks guys i think i get it

[pfym.net]

wow I'm glad to see that there is finally a forum out there where people can ask questions and get honest responses. It nice to see there is a place where someone doesn't have to worry about ub3r forum geeks giving them a hard time because they believe the question is below them. The guy had a question, he obviously doesn't understand how odds work. Anyone want to explain why it doesn't work this way or should we find him and stone him for asking him?

[sirtimo]

Welcome to the forum.

There are two other forums, Probability and Beginners, (look to the left side of the page, under "General Gambling") that you will find most helpful. Lots of basics are covered, usually with a straight, honest answer instead of smartassed comments.

As for your original question. The probability of any particular cards coming up on the flop has no relationship to the previous flops or your previous hands. Just like flipping a fair coin will give you on average 50% heads and 50% tails. You may land on heads 10 times in a row but the chances of you landing on tails the 11th time is still 50/50. The events are independant of each other, therefore the outcomes do not relate to each other.

regards,
Tim