Implied odds question: Am I paying too much when behind?

[jonnyUCB]

In crosse91's post entitled "Set on a 3-flush flop". There was a sub-discussion regarding limping versus raising pocket 9s when first to enter.. I think it was in MP.

Anyway, the debate has been milled over time and time again but I am wondering how everyone calculates their money invested vs possible implied odds. Many people state they'd rather limp and pay for a raise with pkt 9s, as it pays less to draw.

Say in a 200NL game I open for $8 and get raised to $23 from LP with a $200 stack. Everyone folds to me so I have to pay $15 to win a piece of ~35. This is 2:1 effectively, so I must make up about $80 in value if I am to make this call, correct? Or is it that I've paid 23 to see the flop and must make it up with his whole stack?

Another similar situation is when I lead with draws, and get raised (happens a lot). I will usually call to see the turn, often getting 4:1 on my decision (perfect effective odds). But this discounts the fact that I've already lead for a 2/3 PSB.

Am I paying too much to draw here? Especially when OOP? Should I be check/calling my draws when theres a good chance I'll get raised behind me?