Game Theory Question...

[Mike Gallo]

Later stages of a no limit tournament, players have noticed and commented on how tight I play. Combination of bad cards and poor timing.

Blinds have increased antes have increased and I went from having a slightly above chip lead at the table to around average.

I decide to play 7 5 clubs and 8 10 diamonds the same way I would play any premium hand.

Would I consider this a form of game theory?

Edited for clarity [img]/images/graemlins/tongue.gif[/img]

[jdl22]

Depends but probably not.

The problem is that game theory assumes all players are rational so they optimally play a response to what you're doing. If this were a game theory problem you wouldn't be able to "fool them" ie they would take into account that you will play that way and respond accordingly.

The reason it depends is that you haven't really told us enough to tell. If the other guys believe that you have aces or kings everytime you raise it up then no this play doesn't satify the normal game theoretic assumption of rationality. If they put you on a range of hands which includes these types and you would actually raise with them then yes.

In summary for this to be played according to game theory we would need:
<ul type="square">[*]them to assume you play a range of hands this way, including these hands[*]they respond to your play in a way that maximises their EV[*]given the way they are responding to your strategy it is optimal for you to play all of the hands in the way they assume you do[/list]