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Old 12-09-2005, 07:04 AM
KickAce KickAce is offline
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Default Probablity that none of 2 callers has a diamond when flops all suited

This situation happens all the time.I have two callers preflop and the board is all suited-(Diamonds).What is the probablity that none of my opponents have a diamond .Also how does it variate with number of callers ?
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Old 12-09-2005, 07:46 AM
Kristian Kristian is offline
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Default Re: Probablity that none of 2 callers has a diamond when flops all suited

The probability that a card not in the flop is not a diamond is:

(number of non-diamonds left)/(number of cards left)

Calculate this number and multiply for each card.

For 2 players (4 cards), that is: 37/47*36/46*35/45*34/44 = 37% if you have no diamonds yourself
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