Basic (stupid) question about pot odds

[Shandrax]

Let's say I do sports betting and it takes me 10$ to bet for a possible return of 40$. I get 40$ for 10$ = 4:1 pot odds.

Now in poker what I don't understand is this:
Assume there were 30$ in the pot and one guy bets 10$ to offer me a 40$ pot that takes me 10$ to play for. That usually goes as 4:1 pot odds in the literature, BUT when I call the bet I have to put my own 10$ in the pot also! In contrast to other forms of betting, my own money raises the overall pot that we are playing for. If I win, I get 50$ and since that bet costs me 10$, aren't my pot odds 5:1 instead of 4:1 then?

Stuff like that keeps nagging on me, so I have ask it here and I am willing to take the risk that people think I am an idiot [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

[BOTW]

The use of the terms "for" and "to" can be confusing. Whenever you say the odds as "to", in addition to the payoff you also get your original bet back. When you say the odds as "for", you don't count your original bet.

If I get five for one odds on a $10 bet, I'll get back a total of $50 if I win.
If I get four to one odds on a $10 bet, I'll get back a total of $50 if I win.

The ':' is used to mean "to" and is usually how poker authors describe pot odds. So, your pot odds are both 4:1 and five for one. (Without worrying about future action, if you think your chances are better than 4:1 to win, you should call.)

[OrianasDaad]

I understand your confusion.

You take pot odds into consideration before you put money into the pot. You are getting 4-1 if you call.

Once that money is in the pot, it belongs to the pot.

You aren't getting 5:1 because the pot doesn't contain $50 when you call a $10 bet.