Flopped Set Against Loose Passive

[crego20]

1.28 is not passive when he is in 50% of all hands. He is ramming and jamming alot to get his AF that high with his VP$IP that high. Does that make sense to you?

[ncboiler]

No I'm sorry. Aggressiveness is (Bet% + raise%)/Call% and is not based on number of hands. Yes if someone plays a lot of hands you would expect them to do a lot of calling but I don't always see that being the case. I look at AF seperate from % hands played. I actually thought that people that play a large number of hands would have a higher AF just because of their nature.

[TheHip41]

[ QUOTE ]
No I'm sorry. Aggressiveness is (Bet% + raise%)/Call% and is not based on number of hands. Yes if someone plays a lot of hands you would expect them to do a lot of calling but I don't always see that being the case. I look at AF seperate from % hands played. I actually thought that people that play a large number of hands would have a higher AF just because of their nature.

[/ QUOTE ]

You are wrong. If you are in 50% of your hands, you have to be raising a lot of weaker draws to get your AF up to 1.5. If I see someone with a VP of 50, with a AF of 1.5, I usually just make it up to like 2 or 2.25 or so.

[ncboiler]

Noted. I'll take this into account for now on. Thanks!!!

[crego20]

Sure, I'm just glad I could help.

[crego20]

You have the definition perfect.

Now think about what that means for a 55% VP$IP, he is flopping crap a lot. So a lot of folding/calling, and
very little raising/betting, vs a standard tag, who is
doing a lot of betting/raising and little calling.

Did that make it any clearer?