Random Math / Theory Question

Assume a situation where my opponent must hold either a set or a specific pair. Assume that the odds of him being dealt the specific cards for the pair or the specific cards for the set are equal. Under these circumstances is it much more likely for my opponent to have a set than a pair if his actions are equally indicitive of either?

Edit: See my third post, it makes much more sense [img]/images/graemlins/frown.gif[/img]