Someone explain this to me

[disjunction]

96o

Let's look at your gutshots, which is one of the better scenarios. Suppose you flop a gutshot. Looks like this is a favorable scenario for 96o because you have odds to call, right? Except in reality, looking at the whole hand, you put in a bet preflop and a bet on the flop (assuming it's only one SB on the flop, doubtful since everyone 3 people seem to like their hands preflop). So you're really putting in 2 bets to win 10. Apologies if this is simplistic but a lot of otherwise good players on these boards seem to misunderstand the concept of giving themselves "odds to call".

Let's look at your straight. You need an 87. There are a lot of ways your opponents can make a higher straight.

Let's look at your pairs. You're not winning with a pair of 6's, and there's a good chance someone has a higher kicker on their 9.

There's a good chance a lot of cards you like (8,9,T) are dead, and with the cold calling, there's some chance of someone having 77, 88, 99, making your hand really suck.

In short, there's very few flops where you think you're ahead or have the best draw, and you can expect the action to put you to the test.

Edit: Also, your two pair could be counterfeited. Just call me gloomy gus. [img]/images/graemlins/grin.gif[/img]