Strange Odds

[JC21]

In the case of XY v. XZ (Y>Z), where both have straight possibilities (i.e. AQ v. AJ), XY is a 3:1 favourite.

When XY v. XZ (Y>Z), where X can make a straight with Y but not with Z (i.e. AQ v. A7), XY is only a 5:2 favourite.

My odds may be incorrect, but why is a hand like AQ less of a favourite against A7 than it is against AJ?

[slickpoppa]

I think you somewhat answered your own question already.

A7, as opposed to AJ, has a better chance of making straights v. AQ because none of its straight cards are taken by the AQ. With AQ v. AJ, AJ has a smaller chance of making a straight because one of the Q's is not in play.

[gaming_mouse]

When I ran it in pokerstove, A7 had only about .5% more equity than AJ. slickpoppa may have answered the reason for this. also, AJ and AQ are chopping some straights too. this may have something to do with it.

[JC21]

Ah, that makes sense. What I was thinking before was that AJ>A7, so AJ should be less of a dog against AQ.

Thanks guys.

[kirahvi]

Poker hands cannot be compared easily.

A classic example:
AA > KK and KK > 56s, but still 56s has more equity against AA than KK has.

[LSU POKER PIMP]

SO i guess the best hand to go against AA would be 109s of a different suit

[kirahvi]

Actually the best hand against AA is exactly 56s. T9s loses some of its straight potential against AA when the board is something like KQJTx.