Outs after the flop Part II

[sgfried]

From what I have read I am NOT looking for implied odds or effective odds. In the paragraph below I am looking at how they came up with 36% after the flop to hit the flush. With one card you have 9 outs, 9/47 is roughly 1:4. Yet, 36% is obviously better than 1:3, how do you figure out that the flush draw with 2 cards is a 1:3 chance NOT a 1:4 chance. I have seen equations that are fine on paper but no way am I doing that at the table in my head. Thanks, please see paragraph below.


So, here's an example:
You are heads up. You have a flush draw on the flop, giving you roughly a 36% chance of hitting.....