Rule for bets when someone is all in

[MrGrob]

EXP:

Player A raises -- player B must now raise AT LEAST THAT AMOUNT...play C at LEAST THE AMOUNT of player B's raise.

EXP: PA raise to 100 -- player B can raise another 100 (200) or more, so lets say he reraises to 300 -- Player C may now reraise also, but it must be a raise that is AT LEAST 200 more (as was player B's). If player C does raise, then BOTH player A and B have a right to reraise when the betting gets back to them no matter what.

If player C just calls, then it is back to player A that CAN raise again if he wishes, as player B had raised him, and if player A just calls, the betting is over.

What happened in your home game is different. Here is why.

Player A canNOT reraise again, because Play B's raise (ALL IN) was LESS THEN 1/2 of the bet before him. Because his bet was less the 1/2 of player A's raise, and player C then just called, player A canNOT reraise here. An ALL IN has to be at least 1/2 the incriment for betting for it to reactivate any reraising.

Now, if player C (who has the right to raise because player A had raised) raises here, the min raise is still $15 (not 16, as B's was not a raise) which totals $31. Player A can reraise here, as player C's valid raise reactivated the betting.

Bottom line:

Any raises must be at least the size of the last raise, and any ALL INs must be at LEAST 1/2 of the current raise limit to activate any further raising from the player making the last raise before his all in (all him BOB). After he acts all in for less then 1/2 the current limit, only raising by other players after him, or who are to react again before BOB, can make it possible for further raising by reraising the last current correct raise amount. Side note, if player D's ALL IN was at least 1/2 the limit, it is a riase, but it does not make the raise limit any higher for the next raise...it ONLY makes it possible for other after to raise again as noted.

final EXP:

A calls the blind
B raises 100
C reraises 100
D goes all in for 225 total
E (has opt to call 225, or raise another 100 to 325)

if E calls,
A can call 225, or raise himself

if A calls,
B can call or raise again

if B calls,
C CAN ONLY CALL, as there were no further activating raises after D was put all in for less the 1/2 the current raise limit.

I will let you figure out who can do what with the different options I did not type out.

DISCLAIMER: PLEASE correct me if I am not correct 2+2'ers, but I believe this is correct. Thanks!!!

[Trantor]

As pointed out earlier in the thread the 1/2 bet rule you describe is for limit holdem. The original question asked about the rules for nolimit holdem.

[slamdunkpro]

Player A can only call since player B's all in was less than a full raise ($30). In other words you can't raise yourself.

[Stew]

[ QUOTE ]
If your going to follow Robert's Rules of Poker he can only call because he was not fully raised... I'll look it up if I can, but I know thats right.

edit - this is from http://www.homepokertourney.com/betting.htm under "No-Limit Rules"
[ QUOTE ]
3. All raises must be equal to or greater than the size of the previous bet or raise on that betting round, except for an all-in wager. A player who has already checked or called may not subsequently raise an all-in bet that is less than the full size of the last bet or raise. (The half-the-size rule for reopening the betting is for limit poker only.) Example: Player A bets $100 and Player B raises $100 more, making the total bet $200. If Player C goes all in for less than $300 total (not a full $100 raise), and Player A calls, then Player B has no option to raise again, because he wasn’t fully raised. (Player A could have raised, because Player B raised.)

[/ QUOTE ]

[/ QUOTE ]


don't know why there is any argument here. Player A simply cannot re-raise. He can only call the extra $1 bet by Player B. In order for Player A to be able to Re-Raise, there must have been another raise at least equal to or greater than the full amount of the last full bet ($15).

Oh and by the way, the person that stated the minimum raise is equal to the amount of the Big Blind is wrong. This is true if there has not already been a bet or raise. However, if there has been a bet or raise, then the minimum amount to raise is the amount of the previous bet/raise.

[Lottery Larry]

I won't if you won't tell mine the next time I'm wrong! :P

[Lottery Larry]

"However a raise in Hold'em must equal AT LEAST the big-blind. "

This is true, but only by accident. Since the minimum opening bet at any time is the big blind amount, of course a raise has to at least double the previous bet and therebye equal to the BB amount.

As Stew mentioned below..

[MrGrob]

Ah, thank you!!! That is what I always thought till I was corrected incorrectly some time ago. Figures I should have double checked that advise...but he had played more then I had at that time, and having not played NL that much after, I never tought about it again till now.

[MrGrob]

And, dang, I read this WRONG last night. Guess I should have had more sleep before typing up a long winded "I shoud have RTFF" post [img]/images/graemlins/confused.gif[/img]

Sorry all, I won't waste any more of y'alls time after this.

Peace...

[3rdEye]

To the best of my knowledge, he can only call, since the raise was was less than the original bet/raise. The size of the BB has nothing to do with it, since we are dealing with postflop action.

Or at least that's how I understand it.

[bolgenmod]

My question is: why didn't Player A bet all-in after the flop? That might have gotten Player C out. I assume it was Player C who made the straight on the river, because since B was all-in, there was no way to raise him out of the pot (and thus no need to be furious when A lost!).

By the way, this kind of situation is why it's a good idea to have a written set of rules -- you don't think you need them until it is too late!