For the love of God will somebody answer my coinflip question?

[Proofrock]

100BB max buy-in game, you have ~ 800BB and at least one other player at the table has you covered. What is the minimum edge you need to call a preflop all-in from a player who has you covered (for simplicity imagine you're in BB and the other player open pushes from SB)?

If the answer is any hand for which you're >50% to win, explain why the 100BB max buy-in doesn't factor into the decision. If the answer depends on information not given, please explain what factors are important to consider and how they would effect your decision.

If this is the wrong forum, let me know where it belongs.

-J.A.

my reply was undeserved

[Ryendal]

You give your own value at what you win.
X = positive emotion when you win
Y= negative emotion when you lose

the equilibrium is all dependant of each one.

[captZEEbo1]

it depends if the person that has you covered is a huge fish or not...if you think it's gonna be easy to stack them if you hit a hand like TP or a flush or whatever, don't take a small edge pf if you can get 800 bb's postflop easier. If person is solid, anything over 50% should do (aka just AA). This question is dumb b/c allin for 800 bb's doesn't happen to much without AA vs AA unless person is a fish in which case how the hell did they get it up to 800 bb's...you should have observed this and know the answer to the question already.

[AZK]

[ QUOTE ]
if you think it's gonna be easy to stack them if you hit a hand like TP or a flush or whatever, don't take a small edge pf if you can get 800 bb's postflop easier. I

[/ QUOTE ]

the idea behind this is basically what rbk was explaining to you in that other thread a few weeks ago, where you argued ev is ev [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]

[dtbog]

[ QUOTE ]
-J.A.

[/ QUOTE ]

nh. [img]/images/graemlins/smile.gif[/img]